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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

Question 1

The probability of default of a security over a 1 year period is 3%. What is the probability that it would not have defaulted at the end of four years from now?

A. 88.00%
B. 12.00%
C. 88.53%
D. 11.47%

Question 2

A risk management function is best organized as:

A. reporting directly to the traders, as to be closest to the point at which risks are being taken
B. integrated with the risk taking functions as risk management should be a pervasive activity carried out at all levels of the organization.
C. a part of the trading desks and other risk taking teams
D. report independently of the risk taking functions

Question 3

When modeling severity of operational risk losses using extreme value theory (EVT), practitioners often use which of the following distributions to model loss severity:
I. The 'Peaks-over-threshold' (POT) model
II. Generalized Pareto distributions
III. Lognormal mixtures
IV. Generalized hyperbolic distributions

A. II and III
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

Question 4

The principle underlying the contingent claims approach to measuring credit risk equates the cost of eliminating credit risk for a firm to be equal to:

A. the probability of the firm's assets falling below the critical value for default
B. the cost of a call on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt
C. the market valuation of the firm's equity less the value of its liabilities
D. the value of a put on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt

Question 5

An asset has a volatility of 10% per year. An investment manager chooses to hedge it with another asset that has a volatility of 9% per year and a correlation of 0.9. Calculate the hedge ratio.

A. 1
B. 1.2345
C. 0.81
D. 0.9

Solutions: