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NEW QUESTION # 48
A patient arrived at the emergency department experiencing pain in both legs. The ED physician ordered a comprehensive duplex scan of the arteries in both lower extremities to rule out arteriosclerosis.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 93925x2.170.303
- B. 93926 x 2. M79.604, M79.605
- C. 93926 x 2,170.303. M79.604, M79.605
- D. 93925, M79.604. M79.605
Answer: D
Explanation:
93925 - Duplex scan of arteries, bilateral lower extremities; complete
Includes both legs # do not bill twice
Diagnosis Codes:
M79.604 - Pain in right leg
M79.605 - Pain in left leg
Why others are incorrect:
93926 × 2 - Unilateral only
I70.303 - Arteriosclerosis not confirmed
NEW QUESTION # 49 
Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 623654
What CPTO coding is reported for this case?
- A. 14001, 11606-51, 12034-51
- B. 14001, 11606-51
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 50
A surgeon performs a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis at the same surgical session.
What CPT@ coding is reported?
- A. 19325-50
- B. 19303-50, 19342-50
- C. 19303-50, 19340-50
- D. 19305-50, 19340-50
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPTcodes are:
1. 19303-50: This code represents a complete mastectomy (removal of breast tissue) performed bilaterally (indicated by the -50 modifier).
2. 19340-50: This code is for the immediate insertion of a breast prosthesis following mastectomy, also performed bilaterally.
Explanation of other options:
A: 19303-50, 19342-50: Incorrect because 19342 is for the insertion of a breast implant, which differs from a prosthesis.
B: 19305-50, 19340-50: 19305 describes a modified radical mastectomy, which is more extensive than what is documented here.
C: 19325-50: This code represents a breast augmentation procedure, not a mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.
Thus, the correct answer is D. 19303-50, 19340-50, which accurately describes a bilateral mastectomy with prosthesis insertion.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A patient that delivered her second child vaginally has a history of having a previous cesarean delivery for the first child.
What CPTcode is reported for the delivery of the second child with antepartum care and postpartum care with the same provider?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient delivered her second child vaginally after having a previous cesarean delivery for her first child.
This scenario describes a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).
CPTCode 59610 is specific for a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery, including antepartum and postpartum care with the same provider, which matches this case exactly.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 59410 covers only vaginal delivery with postpartum care but does not include a history of previous cesarean delivery, so it is not appropriate for a VBAC.
Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery with antepartum and postpartum care but, again, does not account for a previous cesarean, so it does not apply in this VBAC scenario.
Code 59614 is for a VBAC but does not include antepartum care, making it incomplete for this scenario since the question specifies that antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care were provided by the same provider.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines indicate that 59610 should be used for a complete VBAC service that includes antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care by the same provider.
Therefore, based on CPTguidelines, the correct answer is B. 59610.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A temporary steroid-releasing sinus implant is placed in the ethmoid sinus.
What HCPCS Level II code is reported?
- A. C1877
- B. C2617
- C. S1091
- D. C9600
Answer: B
Explanation:
C2617 = Implant, sinus, drug-eluting, absorbable
NEW QUESTION # 53
What does the prefix "sub-" signify in medical terminology?
- A. Within
- B. Below
- C. Outside
- D. Above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The prefix "sub-" means below or under.
Common examples include subcutaneous (below the skin) and sublingual (under the tongue).
This is a core concept tested under medical terminology on the CPC exam.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?
- A. 92082, G43.009
- B. 92082, G43.019
- C. 92083, G43.019
- D. 92081, G43.009
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procedure: Visual field examination of both eyes using Goldmann perimeter testing with four isopters.
CPT Code:
92082: This code is for visual field examination with intermediate examination.
ICD-10-CM Code:
G43.009: Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus.
Code Selection Justification: The visual field exam method and complexity align with 92082. The patient's diagnosis of non-intractable migraine without aura is coded as G43.009.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 55
A 30-year-old patient with a scalp defect is having plastic surgery to insert tissue expanders. The provider inserts the implants, closes the skin, and increases the volume of the expanders by injecting saline solution. Tissue is expanded until a satisfactory aesthetic outcome is obtained to repair the scalp defect.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 56
A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.
Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:
Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ
Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals.
Refill prescription Lisinopril.
Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.
Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
* The patient presented for a follow-up visit for chronic conditions, including hypokalemia, hypertension, and esophageal reflux. During this visit, the physician reviewed and discussed lab results, managed prescriptions, and noted that there were no new symptoms or complaints.
* The level of service provided included an appropriate history and exam, as well as the management of multiple chronic conditions, which aligns with the criteria for CPT code 99214. This code is used for an established patient office or other outpatient visit that requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history, a detailed examination, and medical decision-making of moderate complexity.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
* Evaluation and Management Coding Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 57
According to the Application of Cast and Strapping CPTguidelines, what is reported when an orthopedic provider performs initial fracture care treatment for a closed scaphoid fracture of the wrist, applies a short arm cast, and the patient will be returning for subsequent fracture care?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 29075-22
- D. 25622, 29075
Answer: A
Explanation:
For initial fracture care of a closed scaphoid fracture, code 25622 is used, which includes treatment and initial casting. The application of the cast is part of the fracture care and is not reported separately. CPTguidelines specify that casting or strapping performed as part of the fracture care is included in the fracture care code.
References: AMA's CPTProfessional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Musculoskeletal System.
NEW QUESTION # 58
(A patient is in the operating room for a planned partial meniscectomy of the temporomandibular joint.
However, after general anesthesia was administered and the oral surgeon made the incision, the patient experienced respiratory distress. The oral surgeon decides tocancel the procedure. What CPT coding is reported for the oral surgeon?)
- A. 21060-74
- B. 21060-52
- C. 21060-53
- D. 21060-47
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modifier selection for discontinued procedures depends onsettingandhow far the procedure progressed. In the CPT modifier framework,-53(Discontinued Procedure) is used when a physician terminates a procedure due toextenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patientafter the procedure has begun.
Here, anesthesia was given, the incision was made, and then respiratory distress occurred-clearly a patient safety issue requiring stopping the surgery. That matches modifier-53for the surgeon's claim. Modifier-74is afacilitymodifier (commonly used by ambulatory surgery centers/hospitals for discontinued outpatient procedures after anesthesia), not the surgeon's CPT modifier in the typical CPC context. Modifier-47indicates anesthesia by the surgeon, which is not the key fact here and does not represent discontinuation. Modifier-52is for reduced services when a service is partially reduced at the physician's discretion, not terminated for patient safety. Therefore, the oral surgeon reports21060-53.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A comatose patient is seen in the ER. The patient has a history of depression. Drug testing confirm she overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 60
A patient had surgery a year ago to repair two flexor tendons in his forearm. He is in surgery for a secondary repair for the same two tendons.
Which CPT coding is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 25272 x 2
- C. 25263 x 2
- D. 1
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 61
(A patient presents for an outpatient physical therapy evaluation due to chronic low back pain. The medical record documents that the patient has a current diagnosis oflumbar spine region cancer, which isactively being treatedat the time of therapy. Which lumbar spine associated conditionM codeis reported?)
- A. M1041
- B. M1037
- C. M1039
- D. M1038
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question is testing selection of the correcttherapy functional outcome/condition "M-code"used in certain therapy reporting contexts (commonly tied to claims-based data collection requirements and payer-specific reporting rules). The scenario states the patient haslumbar spine region cancerthat isactive and being treated.
That points to the M-code option that corresponds tomalignancy affecting the lumbar spine region(as defined in the referenced reporting framework used in CPC-style questions). Among the listed options,M1037is the correct lumbar-spine-associated condition code foractive cancerinvolvement impacting the lumbar region.
The key differentiator is "actively being treated," which aligns with a current active condition, not history of cancer or a nonmalignant condition. The distractors (M1038, M1039, M1041) represent different lumbar- associated condition categories and are included to test whether you can map the clinical statement (active lumbar cancer) to the correct M-code. Therefore, the correct selection isM1037.
NEW QUESTION # 62
(A dermatologist excises abasal celllesion from an area of thescalp, measuring3.7 cm. This is closed with alayered repair. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?)
- A. 11624, 12032, C44.41
- B. 11424, D23.4
- C. 11624, C44.399
- D. 11424, 12032, D44.41
Answer: A
Explanation:
Basal cell carcinoma is amalignantskin neoplasm, so the excision is coded from11600-11646(malignant lesion excision), not11400-11446(benign lesion excision). The scalp is in the anatomic group that includesscalp/neck/hands/feet/genitalia, and the excised diameterincluding marginsdetermines the malignant excision code range. A size of3.7 cmfalls into the3.1-4.0 cmcategory, which corresponds to11624for malignant excision in that location group. Closure is separately reportable when it is anintermediate (layered) repair, so you add12032(intermediate repair, scalp/axillae/trunk/extremities;2.6-7.5 cm) when documentation supports layered closure beyond simple repair. Diagnosis coding should reflectbasal cell carcinoma of scalp
/neck, which isC44.41. Options that use benign excision or benign diagnosis codes are incorrect for basal cell carcinoma.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A patient presents to the pulmonologist's office for the first time with coughing and shortness of breath. The patient has a history of asthma. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The following labs are ordered: CBC, arterial blood gas, and sputum culture. The pulmonologist assesses the patient with a new diagnosis of COPD. The patient is given a prescription for the inhaler Breo Ellipta.
What E/M code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 64
A complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast, followed by contrast with four additional sequences and stress imaging, is performed on a patient with systolic left ventricular congestive heart failure and premature ventricular contractions.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 75559, I50.20, I49.3
- B. 75561, 75563, I50.1, I49.1
- C. 75557, 75559, I50.1, I49.1
- D. 75563, I50.20, I49.3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Procedure: Complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast, followed by contrast with four additional sequences and stress imaging.
CPT Codes:
75561: Cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast material.
75563: Cardiac MRI with contrast and further sequences.
ICD-10-CM Codes:
I50.1: Left ventricular failure.
I49.1: Premature ventricular contractions.
Code Selection Justification: The CPT codes accurately capture the MRI procedures performed. The ICD-10-CM codes represent the diagnoses of left ventricular failure and premature ventricular contractions.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 65
(Which CPT code can append modifier50?)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Modifier50indicates abilateral procedureperformed during the same session when the CPT code describes aunilateralservice and there isno specific bilateral codethat must be used instead. Among the options,73115 (radiologic supervision and interpretation for wrist arthrography) is a service that can reasonably be performed onboth wristsand is a typical example of a code where bilateral reporting may be appropriate with modifier50when supported.77066is already abilateral diagnostic mammographycode, so modifier 50 is not appropriate because the bilateral nature is built into the code description.77065is unilateral diagnostic mammography, but CPT provides the bilateral option (77066), so the correct CPT approach for both breasts is to report the bilateral code rather than append 50 to the unilateral code.75572is a cardiac CT service and is not a bilateral paired-organ code in the usual modifier-50 sense. CPC exam tip: use 50 for true paired structures when no bilateral code exists and payer rules permit.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A 42-year-old with chronic left trochanteric bursitis is scheduled to receive an injection at the Pain Clinic. A 22-gauge spinal needle is introduced into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance, and a total volume of 8 cc of normal saline and 40 mg of Kenalog was injected.
What CPT code should be reported for the surgical procedure?
- A. 20611-LT
- B. 20611-LT, 76942
- C. 20610-LT
- D. 20610-LT, 76942
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 67
A patient presents to the ER from a nursing home after the patient was found to have foul smelling, large sacral pressure ulcer during daily nursing rounds. The ER provider swabbed the wound for culture (which measured at 7cm in largest diameter); then cleaned the site before painting with povidone around the entire sacrum to reduce cutaneous bacterial load. The provider made an elliptical excision with 3mm margins around the outer edge of the ulcer and removed the lesion in its entirety. Further examination revealed deep tissue damage, prompting muscle and segmental bone removal. The wound was then closed using a layered skin flap closure.
What CPT coding and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. 15937, L89.156
- B. 15933, L89.153
- C. 15935, L89.156
- D. 15931, L89.153
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario, the procedure involved the excision of a large sacral pressure ulcer with deep tissue damage that required muscle and bone removal and was followed by a layered flap closure. The coding reflects both the extent of the ulcer and the procedure performed:
1. CPT Code 15937: This code describes excision of a pressure ulcer with muscle and bone removal followed by flap closure, which matches the detailed procedure performed on the sacral ulcer.
2. ICD-10-CM Code L89.156: This code is used for a stage 4 sacral pressure ulcer, indicating the presence of deep tissue damage down to muscle and possibly bone, which aligns with the clinical findings.
Explanation of other options:
A . 15933, L89.153 and B. 15931, L89.153: These codes do not adequately describe the excision with muscle and bone removal nor the stage 4 severity of the ulcer.
C . 15935, L89.156: Although L89.156 is correct for a stage 4 ulcer, 15935 does not account for both muscle and bone excision with flap closure.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 15937, L89.156, accurately capturing the procedure performed and the severity of the ulcer.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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