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NEW QUESTION 68
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
- A. Packet Filtering
- B. Application Layer Firewall
- C. INSPECT Engine
- D. Next-Generation Firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 69
Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?
- A. Optimized - Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks
- B. Basic - Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance
- C. Strict - Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance
- D. Recommended - Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/html_frameset.htm?
topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/136486
NEW QUESTION 70
What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?
- A. Destination and Hide
- B. Static and Source
- C. Source and Destination
- D. Hide and Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Security Gateway can use these procedures to translate IP addresses in your network:
NEW QUESTION 71
How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?
- A. Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode
- B. Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA
- C. You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario
- D. It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/f2/f2faf02dba06acad8cc4c57833593df6/ CP_TE100X_TE250X_Appliance_GettingStartedGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517091196_a292abdde351bbdb4b3d28e82654b240&xtn=.pdf
NEW QUESTION 72
Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?
- A. Rule 3
- B. Rule 4
- C. Rule 6
- D. Rule 5
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 73
You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?
- A. backup
- B. Database Revision
- C. migrate export
- D. snapshot
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 2. Snapshot Management
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be saved.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902
NEW QUESTION 74
Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using
________ .
- A. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
- B. User Directory
- C. Captive Portal
- D. UserCheck
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
5. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified
users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD users may be identified transparently.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/
CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm
NEW QUESTION 75
Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
- A. Application Library
- B. Application Dictionary
- C. AppWiki
- D. CPApp
Answer: C
Explanation:
AppWiki Application Classification Library
AppWiki enables application scanning and detection of more than 5,000 distinct applications and over
300,000 Web 2.0 widgets including instant messaging, social networking, video streaming, VoIP, games and more.
NEW QUESTION 76
Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?
- A. Through internal interfaces
- B. Through all interfaces
- C. According to the Firewall Policy
- D. From the Internet
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 77
What is the purpose of Captive Portal?
- A. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources
- B. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS
- C. It provides remote access to SmartConsole
- D. It manages user permission in SmartConsole
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Captive Portal - a simple method that authenticates users through a web interface before granting them access to Intranet resources. When users try to access a protected resource, they get a web page that must be filled out to continue.
Reference : https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/
NEW QUESTION 78
Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.
- A. 290, 675
- B. 636, 290
- C. 675, 389
- D. 389, 636
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A client starts an LDAP session by connecting to an LDAP server, called a Directory System Agent (DSA), by default on TCP and UDP port 389, or on port 636 for LDAPS. Global Catalog is available by default on ports
3268, and 3269 for LDAPS.
NEW QUESTION 79
In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?
- A. From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance
- B. From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server
- C. From an 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance
- D. From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 80
Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?
- A. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.
- B. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.
- C. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his wrongdoings.
- D. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 81
What CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?
- A. show interface (interface) -chain
- B. tcpdump
- C. tcpdump /snoop
- D. fw monitor
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 82
Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option "update now" under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?
- A. SmartEvent
- B. SMS
- C. Device where SmartConsole is installed
- D. Security Gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
Updating IPS Manually
You can immediately update IPS with real-time information on attacks and all the latest protections from the IPS website. You can only manually update IPS if a proxy is defined in Internet Explorer settings.
To obtain updates of all the latest protections from the IPS website:
The LAN Settings window opens.
The settings for the Internet Explorer proxy server are configured.
If you chose to automatically mark new protections for Follow Up, you have the option to open the Follow Up page directly to see the new protections.
NEW QUESTION 83
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?
- A. cphaprob state
- B. cluster state
- C. cphaprob
- D. cphaprob status
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 84
You are the administrator for Alpha Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.
What does this mean?
- A. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.
- B. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.
- C. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.
- D. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 85
What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?
- A. No effect.
- B. Remove the local ACL lists.
- C. Reset SIC on all gateways.
- D. Remove the installed Security Policy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This command uninstall actual security policy (already installed)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6751.htm
NEW QUESTION 86
While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the
windows domain. Why does it not detect the windows domain?
- A. SMS is not part of the domain
- B. Security Gateways is not part of the Domain
- C. SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain
- D. Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
To enable Identity Awareness:
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
See Choosing Identity Sources.
Note - When you enable Browser-Based Authentication on a Security Gateway that is on an IP Series
appliance, make sure to set the Voyager management application port to a port other than 443 or 80.
The Integration With Active Directory window opens.
When SmartDashboard is part of the domain, SmartDashboard suggests this domain automatically. If you
select this domain, the system creates an LDAP Account Unit with all of the domain controllers in the
organization's Active Directory.
NEW QUESTION 87
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management
Architecture?
- A. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
- B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
- C. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
- D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
DeploymentsBasic deployments:
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each SecurityGateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, andis protected by a Security
Gateway. The Security Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
Therecan be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its Security
Gateways.
NEW QUESTION 88
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?
- A. cphaprob state
- B. cluster state
- C. cphaprob
- D. cphaprob status
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm
NEW QUESTION 89
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