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Cisco 100-160 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 84
Which state of data is appropriate for encrypting sensitive information stored in a database?
- A. Data in transit
- B. Data in motion
- C. Data in use
- D. Data at rest
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data at rest refers to data that is stored on storage devices such as hard drives, databases, or backups. Encrypting sensitive information in a database while it is at rest ensures that even if the database is compromised, the data remains protected, and unauthorized access or theft of the data becomes more challenging.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
- A. Using a fingerprint scan only
- B. Using a biometric scan and a passcode
- C. Using a smart card and a PIN
- D. Using a username and password only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication refers to the use of two or more different factors to verify an individual's identity. In this case, using a smart card (something you have) and a PIN (something you know) constitutes multifactor authentication. Combining something you have and something you know adds an extra layer of security compared to using only one factor.
NEW QUESTION # 86
What is an attack vector in cybersecurity?
- A. The method used by an attacker to gain unauthorized access
- B. A vulnerability in a system that can be exploited
- C. The path or means through which an attacker can exploit vulnerabilities
- D. The likelihood of a cyber attack taking place
Answer: C
Explanation:
An attack vector refers to the pathway or means by which an attacker can carry out a successful exploit or gain unauthorized access to a system. It can be a network protocol, software vulnerability, social engineering technique, malicious email attachment, or any other method that allows an attacker to exploit vulnerabilities. Understanding attack vectors is crucial for implementing effective defenses and mitigating risks.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which command-line tool is used to query DNS records and obtain information about domain names?
- A. tcpdump
- B. nslookup
- C. traceroute
- D. netstat
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct command-line tool for querying DNS records and obtaining information about domain names is nslookup. It can be used to check the security assessment information related to DNS configurations, verify the correct mapping of domain names to IP addresses, and troubleshoot any DNS-related issues.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is a principle of data security?
- A. Intrusion Detection System
- B. Data Masking
- C. Encryption
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct. Encryption is a principle of data security that involves converting data into a form that is unreadable by unauthorized users. This helps protect the confidentiality of data.
Option 2: Incorrect. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. While it plays a role in data security, it is not a principle of data security.
Option 3: Incorrect. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports. While it plays a role in data security, it is not a principle of data security.
Option 4: Incorrect. Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious data to protect the privacy of data. While it plays a role in data security, it is not a principle of data security.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Move each NIST Incident Response Lifecycle phase from the list on the left to the correct description on the right.
Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct answer.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 90
What is one benefit of regularly updating documentation in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. Decreasing accountability and traceability of incidents
- B. Creating confusion among users accessing the documentation
- C. Increasing the likelihood of compliance with industry regulations
- D. Increasing the risk of unauthorized access to the documentation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regularly updating documentation helps organizations stay current with industry regulations and best practices. By aligning documentation with compliance requirements, organizations can ensure they are meeting the necessary standards and reduce the risk of potential penalties or legal issues.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which protocol is used for broadcasting and resolving MAC addresses to IP addresses?
- A. ICMP
- B. UDP
- C. TCP
- D. ARP
Answer: D
Explanation:
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used for broadcasting and resolving MAC (Media Access Control) addresses to IP addresses within a local network. It helps devices determine the MAC address associated with a given IP address, enabling proper communication on the network. ARP operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following is an industry-standard tool commonly used for vulnerability scanning?
- A. MacAfee Endpoint Security
- B. Nessus
- C. Microsoft Excel
- D. Apache HTTP Server
Answer: B
Explanation:
Nessus is an industry-standard tool widely used for vulnerability scanning and assessment. It enables organizations to proactively identify and assess potential vulnerabilities in their network infrastructure, operating systems, and applications. Nessus offers a comprehensive set of features, including asset discovery, vulnerability detection, and detailed reporting, making it a popular choice among cybersecurity professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 93
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose 3.)
- A. Authorization of users
- B. Password management
- C. WAN management
- D. Integrity of data
- E. Authentication of users
- F. Confidentiality of information
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity material states that a Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides secure communication over an untrusted network, typically by ensuring:
Authentication → verifying the identity of the user/device
Confidentiality → encrypting the data so it cannot be read by unauthorized parties Integrity → ensuring that transmitted data has not been altered in transit
"VPNs secure remote access by authenticating users, encrypting data for confidentiality, and ensuring integrity through cryptographic checks." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, VPNs section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: WAN management is a network administration function, not a VPN feature.
B is incorrect: Authorization is related but not a primary VPN security function.
C is correct: Integrity is preserved through cryptographic hashing.
D is correct: Authentication verifies user identity.
E is correct: Confidentiality is provided via encryption.
F is incorrect: Password management is separate from VPN functions.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following best describes risks in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. The likelihood of a cybersecurity incident occurring
- B. Potential losses or negative impacts associated with cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities
- C. The extent to which vulnerabilities can be exploited
- D. The process of identifying and assessing potential threats to an organization's security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risks in the context of cybersecurity refer to potential losses or negative impacts that can be caused by cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities. These risks encompass various aspects such as financial losses, reputational damage, operational disruptions, or compromise of sensitive data. Understanding and managing risks is crucial in developing effective cybersecurity strategies to protect an organization's assets and ensure business continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 95
What is the purpose of incident response planning in cybersecurity?
- A. To recover from cybersecurity incidents and restore normal business operations
- B. To conduct forensic investigations after cybersecurity incidents
- C. To prevent cybersecurity incidents from occurring
- D. To detect and respond to cybersecurity incidents in a timely and effective manner
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incident response planning in cybersecurity focuses on establishing processes and procedures to detect, respond to, and mitigate the impact of cybersecurity incidents. It ensures that organizations have the necessary measures in place to identify incidents promptly, contain them, and minimize the potential damage. The goal is to respond to incidents in a timely and effective manner to protect sensitive data and maintain business continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which regulation sets standards for the security and privacy of protected health information (PHI) in the United States?
- A. GDPR
- B. BYOD
- C. HIPAA
- D. PCI DSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a regulation in the United States that sets standards for the security and privacy of protected health information (PHI). It applies to organizations, such as healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses, that handle PHI.
NEW QUESTION # 97
What type of encryption is used to secure data that is stored on a hard drive or other storage media?
- A. Hash encryption
- B. File-based encryption
- C. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
- D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption where the same key is used for both the encryption and decryption processes. It is commonly employed to secure data at rest, such as on a hard drive or other storage media. With symmetric encryption, the key must be kept secret to ensure the confidentiality of the encrypted data.
NEW QUESTION # 98
What does the term "ad hoc" mean in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. A method of threat detection through continuous monitoring and analysis.
- B. A security assessment conducted by external auditors.
- C. A security incident response plan that is predefined and well-documented.
- D. A temporary or improvised solution in response to a specific situation or problem.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In cybersecurity, "ad hoc" refers to a temporary or improvised solution that is implemented to address a specific cybersecurity situation or problem. It is often done in situations where there is no predefined process or security control in place. Ad hoc solutions may not be scalable or sustainable in the long run, but they can be useful in urgent or unexpected situations to mitigate threats or vulnerabilities temporarily.
NEW QUESTION # 99
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?
- A. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
- B. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees' personal information.
- C. They deface an organization's public-facing website.
- D. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation's financial system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity course describes ransomware as a form of malicious software that encrypts or locks access to an organization's data, demanding payment for its release.
"Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems." (CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Malware Types and Threats section, Cisco Networking Academy) A describes spyware or information-stealing malware.
B is website defacement, which is vandalism, not ransomware.
C is correct: locking/encrypting data and demanding payment is the defining behavior of ransomware.
D is more aligned with insider threat or espionage activities.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which type of encryption algorithm uses two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption?
- A. HMAC algorithm
- B. Symmetric encryption
- C. Asymmetric encryption
- D. Hashing algorithm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key encryption, uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. This allows for secure communication over an insecure channel, as the public key can be shared freely without compromising the security of the message.
NEW QUESTION # 101
The company web server collects information through a form. The form is accessed by using port 80. The form content is transferred to an encrypted database for storage. You are investigating a complaint that the form content has been compromised.
What is the cause of the security breach?
- A. The web browser used to access the site was not updated to the latest version.
- B. The database was compromised.
- C. The data was transferred to the database using a nonsecure protocol.
- D. The website was accessed using HTTP, which is an unencrypted protocol.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide explains that HTTP (port 80) transmits data in cleartext, making it susceptible to interception. Even if data is stored securely in an encrypted database, sensitive information can be compromised during transmission if HTTPS (port 443) is not used.
"When HTTP is used instead of HTTPS, all form inputs and transmitted data are sent in plaintext over the network, where they can be intercepted by attackers." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Secure Protocols section, Cisco Networking Academy)
NEW QUESTION # 102
A remote worker is visiting a branch office to attend face-to-face meetings. The worker tries to associate their company laptop with the branch wireless access point (WAP) but is unable to do so.
What is a possible cause?
- A. The IP address of the laptop is not correct.
- B. The WAP is using open authentication.
- C. The WAP is configured for MAC address filtering.
- D. The SSID is not broadcasting.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity material explains that MAC address filtering is a wireless security measure that allows only devices with approved hardware addresses to connect. If the laptop's MAC address is not on the allow list, the connection will be blocked even if the SSID is correct.
"Wireless access points can be configured with MAC address filters to limit network access to authorized devices. If a device's MAC address is not on the permitted list, the connection will fail regardless of credentials." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Wireless Security section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is unlikely because non-broadcast SSIDs can still be manually connected to.
B is correct: MAC address filtering would block an unregistered device.
C would cause IP issues after association, not prevent initial connection.
D (open authentication) would allow connection, so it's not the cause here.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following is a characteristic of weak encryption algorithms?
- A. They provide encryption keys with longer bit lengths.
- B. They are susceptible to cryptanalysis attacks.
- C. They are resistant to brute force attacks.
- D. They support secure communication protocols.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Weak encryption algorithms are those that can be easily broken or exploited using various encryption analysis techniques. These algorithms have vulnerabilities that can be used to decrypt the encrypted data without the need for the encryption key.
NEW QUESTION # 104
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