Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free CompTIA N10-008 Exam Questions and Answer
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CompTIA N10-008, also known as the CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam, is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge of IT professionals in the field of networking. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is designed to assess the candidate's ability to install, configure, manage, and troubleshoot basic network infrastructure, including wireless networks, wired networks, and network devices. It aims to equip professionals with the fundamental knowledge and practical skills required to work in the ever-evolving networking industry.
In addition to providing a strong foundation for a career in the IT industry, the CompTIA Network+ certification is also a vendor-neutral certification, meaning it is not tied to any specific technology or hardware. This makes it a valuable certification for professionals who want to work with a variety of technologies and hardware in different organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 511
A technician is troubleshooting a previously encountered issue. Which of the following should the technician reference to find what solution was implemented to resolve the issue?
- A. Change management documentation
- B. Configuration baseline documents
- C. Work instructions
- D. Standard operating procedures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Change management documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to a system or process, including the reason, date, time, and impact of each change. A technician can reference this documentation to find what solution was implemented to resolve a previously encountered issue, as well as any potential side effects or dependencies of the change. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-change-management
NEW QUESTION # 512
A company is designing a new complex. The primary and alternate data centers will be in separate buildings
6.2mi (10km) apart and will be connected via fiber.
Which of the following types of SFP is the best choice?
- A. 10GBASE-LR
- B. 10000BASE-LX
- C. 1000BASE-SX
- D. 10GBASE-SR
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
10GBASE-LR is the best choice for connecting two data centers that are 6.2 miles (10 km) apart via fiber, because it supports a maximum distance of 6.2 miles (10 km) over single-mode fiber. 10GBASE-SR and
1000BASE-SX are designed for short-range connections over multi-mode fiber, and they can only reach up to
1,312 feet (400 m) and 1,804 feet (550 m), respectively. 10000BASE-LX is a typo and does not exist as a standard.
References:
Network Transceivers - CompTIA Network+ N10-007 - 2.11
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives2
NEW QUESTION # 513
A customer connects a firewall to an ISP router that translates traffic destined for the internet. The customer can connect to the internet but not to the remote site. Which of the following will verify the status of NAT?
- A. tracert
- B. tcpdump
- C. ipconfig
- D. nmap
Answer: B
Explanation:
tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network traffic on a given interface. tcpdump can verify the status of NAT by showing the source and destination IP addresses of the packets before and after they pass through the ISP router that translates traffic destined for the internet. tcpdump can also show the NAT protocol and port numbers used by the router. nmap, ipconfig, and tracert are not suitable tools for verifying the status of NAT, as they do not show the IP address translation process.
Reference
1: Network Address Translation - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.4
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 95-96
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 16
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 7
NEW QUESTION # 514
A network administrator is investigating a performance issue on a dual-link connection-VPN and MPLS-to a partner network. The MPLS is the primary path, and the VPN is used as a backup. While communicating, the delay is measured at 18ms, which is higher than the 6ms expected when the MPLS link is operational but lower than the 30ms expected tor the VPN connection. Which of the following will MOST likely point to the root cause of the Issue?
- A. Running iPerf on both sides to confirm the delay that Is measured is accurate
- B. Checking the routing tables on both sides to ensure there is no asymmetric routing
- C. Checking on the partner network for a missing route pointing to the VPN connection
- D. Checking for an incorrect VLAN assignment affecting the MPLS traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Asymmetric routing can occur when two routers have different paths for the same two hosts, resulting in increased latency and possible packet loss. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, "If the path from the source to the destination is not the same in both directions, the packets will take different routes and the latency can increase significantly." To confirm this, the network administrator should check the routing tables on both sides of the connection and ensure that the same path is used in both directions.
NEW QUESTION # 515
A network administrator is given the network 80.87.78.0/26 for specific device assignments.
Which of the following describes this network?
- A. 80.87.78.1 - 80.87.78.158
- B. 80.87.78.0 - 80.87.78.14
- C. 80.87.78.0 - 80.87.78.110
- D. 80.87.78.1 - 80.87.78.62
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CIDR notation of /26 refers to the number of bits used for the network prefix. In this case, the network prefix is 26 bits long, which leaves 6 bits for the host addresses. In a CIDR notation /26, the first 26 bits of the IP address represent the network and the last 6 bits represent the host addresses.
In this case, the IP address range is 80.87.78.0 - 80.87.78.63 and the network address is
80.87.78.0, so the first usable IP address for devices is 80.87.78.1 and the last usable IP address is 80.87.78.62.
NEW QUESTION # 516
A technician notices that equipment is being moved around and misplaced in the server room, even though the room has locked doors and cabinets. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to identify who is responsible?
- A. Install motion detection.
- B. Install tamper detection.
- C. Install cameras.
- D. Hire a security guard.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 517
A network device is configured to send critical events to a syslog server; however, the following alerts are not being received:
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/1, changed state to down
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/3, changed state to down
Which of the following describes the reason why the events are not being received?
- A. The syslog server is not compatible with the network device
- B. The network device is not configured to log that level to the syslog server
- C. The network device was down and could not send the event
- D. The syslog server did not have the correct MIB loaded to receive the message
Answer: B
Explanation:
The reason why the alerts are not being received is that the network device is not configured to log that level to the syslog server. The severity level for the events may need to be adjusted in order for them to be sent to the syslog server. Reference: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 8: Network Troubleshooting
NEW QUESTION # 518
Which of the Mowing architectures reduces network latency by enforcing a limit on the number of switching devices on the frame's path between any internal hosts?
- A. Three-tiered
- B. Software-defined network
- C. Collapsed core
- D. Spine and leaf
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
It does this by using a two-level hierarchy of switches, where the spine switches connect to the leaf switches, which in turn connect to the end hosts. This reduces the number of hops a packet must take from one host to another, thus reducing latency. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide, the Spine and Leaf topology is a modern architecture that is used to reduce latency in large networks.
NEW QUESTION # 519
Which of the following authentication methods requires a user to enter a password and scan a fingerprint?
- A. Network access control
- B. Multifactor
- C. Single sign-on
- D. Kerberos
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is. A password is something the user knows, and a fingerprint is something the user is. Therefore, a user who needs to enter a password and scan a fingerprint is using multifactor authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 520
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective alternative that provides proper cabling and supports gigabit Ethernet devices?
- A. Multimode fiber with an SC connector
- B. Twinaxial cabling using an F-type connector
- C. Cable termination using TIA/EIA-568-B
- D. Twisted cable with a minimum Cat 5e certification
Answer: D
Explanation:
Twisted cable, also known as twisted pair cable, is a type of copper cable that consists of two or more insulated wires twisted together to reduce crosstalk and electromagnetic interference. Twisted cable is classified into different categories based on its performance and bandwidth. Category 5e (Cat 5e) is a common type of twisted cable that supports data transmission up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) and has a maximum length of 100 meters. Cat 5e is a cost-effective alternative that provides proper cabling and supports gigabit Ethernet devices, such as switches, routers, and computers.
The other options are not as cost-effective or suitable for gigabit Ethernet devices as twisted cable with a minimum Cat 5e certification. Multimode fiber is a type of optical fiber that uses multiple light paths to transmit data over short distances. It requires expensive connectors, such as SC (Subscriber Connector), and specialized equipment, such as media converters, to connect to Ethernet devices. Twinaxial cabling is a type of coaxial cable that has two inner conductors and a common shield. It is mainly used for short-range, high-speed connections, such as Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) or 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE). It uses different connectors, such as F-type, than Ethernet devices. Cable termination is the process of attaching a connector to the end of a cable. TIA/EIA-568-B is a standard that specifies the wiring scheme and pinout for twisted cable connectors, such as RJ-45. Cable termination does not affect the type or performance of the cable itself.
Reference:
[CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide], Chapter 3: Network Components, Section 3.1: Cabling Solutions, pp. 113-116
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes], Section 3.1: Cabling Solutions, pp. 28-29
[Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Training Course], Video 3.1: Cabling Solutions, 17:34 minutes
NEW QUESTION # 521
An engineer needs to verify the external record for SMTP traffic. The engineer logged in to the server and entered the nslookup command. Which of the following commands should the engineer send before entering the DNS name?
- A. set type=A
- B. set domain=company.mail.com
- C. ls -d company.mail.com
- D. set querytype=MX
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 522
Which of the following record types would be used to define where SIP is found?
- A. CNAME
- B. SRV
- C. A
- D. MX
Answer: C
Explanation:
The record type that would be used to define where SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is found is A (Address).
A record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps a domain name to an IPv4 address. SIP is a protocol that enables voice over IP (VoIP) communication, such as voice calls or video conferencing. SIP uses domain names to identify endpoints or servers involved in a communication session. Therefore, an A record is needed to resolve the domain name of a SIP endpoint or server to its IPv4 address. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 154; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-8.
NEW QUESTION # 523
Which of the following technologies allows traffic to be sent through two different ISPs to increase performance?
- A. Port aggregation
- B. Quality of service
- C. Fault tolerance
- D. Load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Port aggregation allows you to group multiple physical ports into one unit. Port aggregation is useful for implementing load balancing and provides a redundant link backup.
NEW QUESTION # 524
A technician is investigating why a PC cannot reach a file server with the IP address 192.168.8.129. Given the following TCP/IP network configuration:
Which of the following configurations on the PC is incorrect?
- A. IPv4 address
- B. IPv6 address
- C. Subnet mask
- D. Default gateway
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the PC to other networks. The default gateway should be on the same subnet as the PC's IPv4 address. However, in this case, the default gateway is
192.168.9.1, which is on a different subnet than the PC's IPv4 address of 192.168.8.15. Therefore, the default gateway configuration on the PC is incorrect and prevents the PC from reaching the file server on another subnet.
NEW QUESTION # 525
A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?
- A. Edge devices
- B. Access switch
- C. User devices
- D. Core switch
Answer: D
Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core switch is a high-performance switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent connectivity issues. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch:
What Are the Differences?
NEW QUESTION # 526
A network security administrator needs to monitor the contents of data sent between a secure network and the rest of the company. Which of the following monitoring methods will accomplish this task?
- A. Port mirroring
- B. Flow data
- C. Syslog entries
- D. SNMP traps
Answer: A
Explanation:
Port mirroring is a method of monitoring network traffic by copying the data packets from one port to another port on the same switch or router. This allows the network security administrator to analyze the contents of the data sent between different networks without affecting the performance or security of the original traffic. Port mirroring can be configured to capture all traffic or only specific types of traffic, such as VLANs, protocols, or IP addresses.
Reference:
Port Mirroring - CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Domain 3.1 - YouTube1
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 142
NEW QUESTION # 527
A branch of a company recently switched to a new ISP. The network engineer was given a new IP range to assign. The ISP assigned 196.26.4.0/26, and the branch gateway router now has the following configurations on the interface that peers to the ISP:
The network engineer observes that all users have lost Internet connectivity. Which of the following describes the issue?
- A. The incorrect gateway was configured
- B. The incorrect IP address was configured
- C. The incorrect interface was configured
- D. The incorrect subnet mask was configured
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IP address configured on the router interface is 196.26.4.1/26, which belongs to the IP range assigned by the ISP (196.26.4.0/26). However, this IP address is not valid for this interface because it is the network address of the subnet, which cannot be assigned to any host device. The network address is the first address of a subnet that identifies the subnet itself. The valid IP addresses for this subnet are from 196.26.4.1 to 196.26.4.62, excluding the network address (196.26.4.0) and the broadcast address (196.26.4.63). The router interface should be configured with a valid IP address within this range to restore Internet connectivity for all users. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24136/network-address
NEW QUESTION # 528
Client devices cannot enter a network, and the network administrator determines the DHCP scope is exhausted. The administrator wants to avoid creating a new DHCP pool. Which of the following can the administrator perform to resolve the issue?
- A. Decrease the number of VLANs
- B. Install more switches
- C. Reduce the lease time
- D. Install load balancers
Answer: C
Explanation:
To resolve the issue of DHCP scope exhaustion without creating a new DHCP pool, the administrator can reduce the lease time. By decreasing the lease time, the IP addresses assigned by DHCP will be released back to the DHCP scope more quickly, allowing them to be assigned to new devices.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 2: The OSI Model and Networking Protocols, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, implement and configure the appropriate addressing schema.
https://www.networkcomputing.com/data-centers/10-tips-optimizing-dhcp-performance
NEW QUESTION # 529
SIMULATION
A network technician replaced a switch and needs to reconfigure it to allow the connected devices to connect to the correct networks.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the appropriate port(s) on Switch 1 and Switch 3 to verify or reconfigure the correct settings:
* Ensure each device accesses only its correctly associated network
* Disable all unused switch ports
* Require fault-tolerant connections between the switches
* Only make necessary changes to complete the above requirements
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the explanation for this solution.
Explanation
Switch 1 and Switch 2 is the only two switches that can be configured. Only switches linked together with there switch ports needs to be "tagged" and "LACP" needs to be enabled. The other ports must be untagged with no LACP enabled. You only need to assign the correct vlan via each port. 'Speed and Duplex' needs to be Speed=1000 and Duplex=Full, with is by default.
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/what-are-tagged-and-untagged-ports/
NEW QUESTION # 530
A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following would normally be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?
- A. Implicit deny
- B. Secure SNMP
- C. DHCP snooping
- D. Port security
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 531
......
CompTIA N10-008 certification exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to install, configure, and maintain basic network infrastructure, including switches, routers, and wireless access points. N10-008 exam also covers network security concepts and best practices, including network segmentation, access control, and threat mitigation. Additionally, the exam tests the candidate's ability to troubleshoot network issues and identify network performance problems.
Online Exam Practice Tests with detailed explanations!: https://actual4test.practicetorrent.com/N10-008-practice-exam-torrent.html